in which faq? I can't find it on the site
Nicely done Darren! Could you now let the exclude the Ripper from the rule of 1? Pretty please
If you consider that Rippers were probably one of the main reasons to invent that rule of one in the first place.... I'd say it is rather unlikely.![]()
Most likely cuz they just didn't pay a whole lot of attention and phrased it in such a way that Foot of gork wasn't included and since foot of gork never was seen as problematic noone bothered to chang it...Why is the ability of the Rippers nerfed and Foot of gork not? Both have a roll condition to move on and rules cleary state thats how it is intended. Sorry if this was asked a milion of times
Most likely cuz they just didn't pay a whole lot of attention and phrased it in such a way that Foot of gork wasn't included and since foot of gork never was seen as problematic noone bothered to chang it...
Or if you want to give it a positie spin; Foot of gork has a fairly high casting value, and to get it off again it needs a 4+ and an available target. With those kind of requirements you'l rarely get more than maybe 2-3 extra hits in. Rippers have re-rolls on their to hit rolls with swoping dive, giving them a 75% chance for every attack to generate another. They'l generate a hell of lot more extra hits like that. Though that ignores the fact that they also still need to wound & get passed the opponents save... Basicly; rippers look scarier on paper as they can annihilate a single unit completly whereas Foot of gork will only severly wound multiple units. And when optimizing people tend to prefer to abuse mechanics that entirely destroy an opponent as opposed to "merely" crippling him so rippers probably saw more "abusive" cases.
yup, that's the basic "logic" behind it. Though it's an arbitrary distinction as the end-result is the same and the mechanic involved doesn't really differ in any aspect other than it's phrasing.Hmmm, Foot of gork is a spell and it's cast once therefore the rule of 1 won't apply, rippers are attacking again therefore it is affected, that's how I always thought it worked,same with Arkhan and curse of years he casts it once but has multiple wound possibilities, does that make sense or have I got it totally wrong?
yup, that's the basic "logic" behind it. Though it's an arbitrary distinction as the end-result is the same and the mechanic involved doesn't really differ in any aspect other than it's phrasing.
Hmmm, Foot of gork is a spell and it's cast once therefore the rule of 1 won't apply, rippers are attacking again therefore it is affected, that's how I always thought it worked,same with Arkhan and curse of years he casts it once but has multiple wound possibilities, does that make sense or have I got it totally wrong?
Ghm,.. the wording doesnt say it makes another attack but another ‘hit roll’. Arent those two different things?
I looks like you are here staying ‘within’ the ability. Where as with Kroaks CD you have to cast again.
Ghm,.. the wording doesnt say it makes another attack but another ‘hit roll’. Arent those two different things?
I looks like you are here staying ‘within’ the ability. Where as with Kroaks CD you have to cast again.
Your right but as your rolling to hit it implies "another attack" with the spells like "curse of years" you just roll if you get a 6+, then a 5+ etc
I don't see the difference, well I do and I know it is reflected in the unit cost but it still seems unfair.